

Once all the notation makes sense, it would be helpful to go over the proof that said P(A) and 2^A are numerically equivalent again.
I also didn't understand how to prove that there exists no bijective function from A to P(A). It makes sense to prove it's injective, but the proof by contradiction to eliminate onto confused me.
Interesting: This is so fascinating!! Especially since there are those two sizes of infinity with no infinity in between. Say what?! (Speaking of which, I hope we never have to write that fancy Hebrew letter)
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